Posts: 97
Joined: Mon Aug 18, 2008 7:13 am
Location: Tucson, Az

battle question

Sun Jan 11, 2009 3:35 am

if the ranges in battles can decrease multiple times per combat round, then why do units have different ranges that they can fire at if they can always reach range 0 in the first or second round?

my units started firing at range 6, my opponent 5.
i retreat at range 3/ round 3, yet i recieve alot of assault hits.
i dont understand this because the majority of groundtroops start firing at range 2.
do the assult hit represent something else?

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Posts: 25489
Joined: Wed Oct 19, 2005 7:37 am
Location: Lyon (France)

Mon Jan 12, 2009 2:34 pm

We have to decide what to do with range variation, as there is no physical positioning for units, and as we have only one range for the entire forces in presence. In reality, forces would be at different ranges from one another, to the point, if you get very detailed, that you are back to having positioned on a grid the various forces (aka a tactical module!).

So you have one range. On the first round, the range start at the highest distance possible and goes down to 0. There are several sub-rounds, where each element fire as soon as it reaches its maximal range. It is thus interesting to fire farther than the other.
Then each round is made of 2 subrounds, range 1 and range 0.

Hofstadter's Law: "It always takes longer than you expect, even when you take into account Hofstadter's law."

Posts: 97
Joined: Mon Aug 18, 2008 7:13 am
Location: Tucson, Az

Mon Jan 12, 2009 5:28 pm

so for example if i open fire at range 5,
the first round would be ranges 5 to 0, with each element firing when it can
then the subsequent 4 rounds would be ranges 1 to 0 and that would mean that mele' combat happens multiple times per battle right?

if so, then i have a better understanding of why there are mele' hits when a side withdraws at a range before infantry firing ranges.


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